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27 Jun 2015, 2:50 pm by MOTP
It would seem that the dominant jurisdiction doctrine cannot furnish an answer - and would not provide a basis for abatement - because the two fora do not have co-extensive authority under an arbitration agreement that makes some claims arbitrable but not others, - at least not in a scenario where both types of claims are present in the same dispute and are contemporaneously pursued, in the respective fora, but involve a common core of case-determinative facts. [read post]